J
jefnik3201028
Hello guys,
Its been a while since I wrote in this forum but I've been reading a lot on those threads.
Well I need the experts help here.
I usually does not encounter this problem but time and again this issue comes up. I have 2 sets of data, same sample measurement, the sample size is 20. Here are the details :
Mean 1=0.1146 Mean2 =0.1185
SD 1=0.011038 SD2 = 0.0636
t-test for dependent sample result showed, p>0.05 which suggest the 2 sets are not significantly different which I can not accept.
Is this result distorted because of the SD problem ? I remember that an f-test should be performed to test equality of variances, do you think that that is the reason for this?
Therefore for this case I ignored the result of the t-test and referred to the linear regression coefficient of r as basis for the correlation.
Need the expert's input if the approach is correct.
Thanks,
Jefnik
Its been a while since I wrote in this forum but I've been reading a lot on those threads.
Well I need the experts help here.
I usually does not encounter this problem but time and again this issue comes up. I have 2 sets of data, same sample measurement, the sample size is 20. Here are the details :
Mean 1=0.1146 Mean2 =0.1185
SD 1=0.011038 SD2 = 0.0636
t-test for dependent sample result showed, p>0.05 which suggest the 2 sets are not significantly different which I can not accept.
Is this result distorted because of the SD problem ? I remember that an f-test should be performed to test equality of variances, do you think that that is the reason for this?
Therefore for this case I ignored the result of the t-test and referred to the linear regression coefficient of r as basis for the correlation.
Need the expert's input if the approach is correct.
Thanks,
Jefnik