I just got a call from my colleague in Spain. In March next year they want to be TS16949 certified. They are assembling the parts we produce here in the Netherlands. The information my colleague got was that we need TS certification too if we want to go on with delivering parts to Spain. Is this true? We are QS9000 and VDA 6.1 certified, isn't that enough? We have plans for TS but not before next summer.
I have some more information. The registrar AENOR (Spain) has given an explenation. Because the plant in Spain has no own R&D department the supplier (our plant) of the parts to be assamblied has to be certified. To me it is very strange. QS9000 gave the possibility to get certified on basis of ISO 9002. TS16949 seems not to have this possibility according to the registrar. Isn't this strange? TS is just like QS9k based on ISO 9000.
What if we were not one company? Do all the suppliers have to be certified according to TS16949? Reading TS clause 4.6.2.2 I understand that QS9000 or VDA 6.1 is accepted too.
Originally posted by Eugène:
QS9000 gave the possibility to get certified on basis of ISO 9002. TS16949 seems not to have this possibility according to the registrar. Isn't this strange? TS is just like QS9k based on ISO 9000.
Eugène [/B]
As I know QS9K follow ISO9K. But from this year(2001) the ISO9K 2000 has much difference from ISO9K 1994. Does new QS9K follow ISO9K 2000 ?
Has whole group to be TS16949 certified?
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