Hi,
I've a particular scenario that some of you involved in class i or iia might be able to relate to. Our device is a class i device for holding a dressing pad in place - similar to a compression sock. The benefit of our device is that it can be used in place of medical adhesive tape which commonly causes adhesive damage to the skin - so significantly improved benefit/risk ratio over the "predicates" (if I'm allowed use that term). Our device is not in direct contact with the broken skin, it's just holding the dressing in place.
So a pretty straightforward device and before MDR any suggestion of a clinical trial to get this to market would probably have been laughed at. But my interpretation of the MDR is that it doesn't seem to care that our device is low risk Class i, it still wants a clinical evaluation to be based on clinical data (article 61.1) - and that this data has to come from either our own device (via a pre-market clinical investigation) or from an "equivalent" device (article 2.48).
There's lots of clinical data available on the use of medical adhesive tape, so we want to leverage this and avoid a clinical investigation with our own. In terms of equivalence, our device ticks the technical and clinical characteristics boxes in the MDCG guidance 2020-5. But not the biological one - which requires that they be "the same". However, we have plenty of biocompatibility testing done to say our material isn't a concern. The question I have is can we claim equivalence on the basis of MDCG 2020-5 even though our material isn't "the same"? The MDD and Section 3.2 of the guidance seems to suggest we can't, but then 4(a) of the guidance seems to suggest a path: "Consideration must be given to the characteristics mentioned above and a gap analysis should be conducted by the manufacturer to evaluate any clinically significant difference(s)", where the "gap" would be filled in with our biocompatibility testing data.
I imagine this is a common enough scenario, so I'm wondering what people think - can we avoid a pre-market clinical investigation here? If not, then something is seriously wrong with the system.
Thanks,
Damien
I've a particular scenario that some of you involved in class i or iia might be able to relate to. Our device is a class i device for holding a dressing pad in place - similar to a compression sock. The benefit of our device is that it can be used in place of medical adhesive tape which commonly causes adhesive damage to the skin - so significantly improved benefit/risk ratio over the "predicates" (if I'm allowed use that term). Our device is not in direct contact with the broken skin, it's just holding the dressing in place.
So a pretty straightforward device and before MDR any suggestion of a clinical trial to get this to market would probably have been laughed at. But my interpretation of the MDR is that it doesn't seem to care that our device is low risk Class i, it still wants a clinical evaluation to be based on clinical data (article 61.1) - and that this data has to come from either our own device (via a pre-market clinical investigation) or from an "equivalent" device (article 2.48).
There's lots of clinical data available on the use of medical adhesive tape, so we want to leverage this and avoid a clinical investigation with our own. In terms of equivalence, our device ticks the technical and clinical characteristics boxes in the MDCG guidance 2020-5. But not the biological one - which requires that they be "the same". However, we have plenty of biocompatibility testing done to say our material isn't a concern. The question I have is can we claim equivalence on the basis of MDCG 2020-5 even though our material isn't "the same"? The MDD and Section 3.2 of the guidance seems to suggest we can't, but then 4(a) of the guidance seems to suggest a path: "Consideration must be given to the characteristics mentioned above and a gap analysis should be conducted by the manufacturer to evaluate any clinically significant difference(s)", where the "gap" would be filled in with our biocompatibility testing data.
I imagine this is a common enough scenario, so I'm wondering what people think - can we avoid a pre-market clinical investigation here? If not, then something is seriously wrong with the system.
Thanks,
Damien