First Pass Yield Base Line Measurement

R

ricoamn72

#1
Hi everyone. I have a question over the calculation of FPY. I know that when applying the calculation you simply multiply the yield value of each consecutive process. So, as the unit travels from A to B to C, the FPY value of A, B & C is multiplied together to determine an overall process yield. However, what happens when two sub-assembly components are essentially made in parallel, & then come together to form part of the final assembly?
so,
Process A = sub assembly # 1
Process B = sub assembly # 2
Both Process A & B are independant & have their own FPY value.
Process C = Sub assemblies 1 & 2 assembled to main unit & tested along with other components.

Would FPY% in this case be, the lower value of A or B, multiplied by C to essentially give you the lowest or worst case? Maybe someone can shed some light on this for me. thanks.:)
 
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1

12stones

#2
First, I assume you're talking about Rolled Throughput Yield (RTY) which is the multiplication of each FPY. The FPY is the end result of each process. In this case, you're measuring the whole process, so you would calculate RTY in the standard way.

FPY^A * FPY^B * FPY^C

Don't try to overthink it. Just because A & B happen simultaneously doesn't mean the measurement changes. Each one has their own FPY which is used for the RTY calculation, regardless of when they happen.
 
R

ricoamn72

#3
Thanks 12stones. I'm not 100% on the terminology. I know in a previous position with another company we calculated the 'RTY' by multiplying all the individual FPY values together. It was referred to as 'overall FPY', but all the process steps were consecutive. I'm in a new job with a new company & currently they only look at the final step of the process so I want to expand it but wasn't sure how to handle the parallel steps. Thankyou for your response.
 
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