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I recently did an Internal Audit and wrote up a nonconformance on jobs that reflect unrealistic lead-time/ship dates which cannot be meet. Customer requirements and on-time deliveries are not being meet.
The response I received was that moving out the lead times is not going to solve the problem. We do not have a lead-time problem, we have a capacity problem. It doesn't matter if you put 2 weeks or 2 months, if we are over capacity (which we are) we will be late no matter what date you put on it.
the Process Owner wants to know what procedures are we in violation of. He said putting certain dates on an order is not a violation of any procedure/standard.
The way I look at it if you insure a customer that they will have their parts on a specific date knowing that there is no way the parts will actually ship on that date, then that is a blatant violation/nonconformance. Isn’t it?
How do I respond to this? At the end of May we had already incurred 1,983 late order notifications! We are knowingly scheduling an average of 20 jobs a day that the Customer delivery/promise date we give them can not be met.
The response I received was that moving out the lead times is not going to solve the problem. We do not have a lead-time problem, we have a capacity problem. It doesn't matter if you put 2 weeks or 2 months, if we are over capacity (which we are) we will be late no matter what date you put on it.
the Process Owner wants to know what procedures are we in violation of. He said putting certain dates on an order is not a violation of any procedure/standard.
The way I look at it if you insure a customer that they will have their parts on a specific date knowing that there is no way the parts will actually ship on that date, then that is a blatant violation/nonconformance. Isn’t it?
How do I respond to this? At the end of May we had already incurred 1,983 late order notifications! We are knowingly scheduling an average of 20 jobs a day that the Customer delivery/promise date we give them can not be met.