Good morning @Big Jim Thanks for the feedback. I am in agreement with you. However, my "dive" into this is more academic than application. While I don't disagree with your statement, I still do not see any requirement beyond what the organization determines. There is no need (as we know) to document the processes,...simply "determine" the processes. (Again, in order to benefit the organization by visualizing the organization strategy and to provide evidence of the act of "determine the processes", I recommend a simple process flow map....BUT there is no requirement to do so).
I would argue that this (in reality) occurs organically. If I own a pizza shop, I'm going to have processes beyond the examples I listed, in order to simply function. If we take the "shall determine" in context, ...it follows the opening statements "...establish, maintain, improve, a quality management system, including the processes needed...." My point in all of this is that IF an organization has the processes needed and functioning ....then they (assuming they are compliant to the balance of the 9001 standard [again, seems nearly impossible to be compliant or operate a functioning organization without the "processes needed"] ), ....then there is no nonconformance, regardless of WHICH processes they specifically "write down". Demonstration of the effectiveness of the QMS, including (not sure how you could separate it), the processes needed- is all that is needed.
What I am digging for is an actual refute of this position based objectively on the verbiage within the standard.
Thanks to all for humoring me in this. There is a reason behind my madness (in this case
Be well.
I would argue that this (in reality) occurs organically. If I own a pizza shop, I'm going to have processes beyond the examples I listed, in order to simply function. If we take the "shall determine" in context, ...it follows the opening statements "...establish, maintain, improve, a quality management system, including the processes needed...." My point in all of this is that IF an organization has the processes needed and functioning ....then they (assuming they are compliant to the balance of the 9001 standard [again, seems nearly impossible to be compliant or operate a functioning organization without the "processes needed"] ), ....then there is no nonconformance, regardless of WHICH processes they specifically "write down". Demonstration of the effectiveness of the QMS, including (not sure how you could separate it), the processes needed- is all that is needed.
What I am digging for is an actual refute of this position based objectively on the verbiage within the standard.
Thanks to all for humoring me in this. There is a reason behind my madness (in this case
Be well.