The FDA guidelines for manufacturing medical devices states that the customer risk is the key quantity. Therefore, during the qualification of our process we should focus our effort onto estimating/quantifying the customer risk, and to establish evidence that we satisfy our priorly defined limits. Also, the FDA "recommends" to state rationals for the used sample size during qualification. Nevertheless, I often read statements such as "we choose a sample size N=XXX, because this provides 95% confidence that the reliability R>=99%". The way I read this statement is that the author did the following: (in the example I assume a process, which generates results following a binomial distribution)
1. Define a value for the probability of failure, pFail = 1-R = 0.01,
2. Define a value for the max. allowed number of failure counts, e.g. nFail = 2,
3. Define a value of the confidence C = 1 - gamma = 0.95
4. and finally calculate the sample size such that the cumulated probability is equal to gamma = 1 - confidence = 0.05. So, the task is to find nSample such that Pr(n<=nFail | nSample, pFail) = gamma. In this example the calculation yields nSample = 628.
My key trouble using this method is that we are not quantifying the customer risk. I understand that this method is simple, but from a mathematical perspective we state the null hypothesis
H0: The reliability R is at least 99%
and then we collect data to show that we do not have enough evidence to reject H0. In statistics there is a famous statement, "the absence of evidence is not the evidence of absence". Nevertheless, this is exactly what we are implying.
My questions are
1. Am I the only one who believes that this method is wrong?
2. Is this method so common that auditors never complain about it? Does anybody had a bad experience with an auditor due to this?
I know that there exists methods, which use the customer risk as input parameter. So my question is not about other methods, but specifically about the usage of the describe method.
1. Define a value for the probability of failure, pFail = 1-R = 0.01,
2. Define a value for the max. allowed number of failure counts, e.g. nFail = 2,
3. Define a value of the confidence C = 1 - gamma = 0.95
4. and finally calculate the sample size such that the cumulated probability is equal to gamma = 1 - confidence = 0.05. So, the task is to find nSample such that Pr(n<=nFail | nSample, pFail) = gamma. In this example the calculation yields nSample = 628.
My key trouble using this method is that we are not quantifying the customer risk. I understand that this method is simple, but from a mathematical perspective we state the null hypothesis
H0: The reliability R is at least 99%
and then we collect data to show that we do not have enough evidence to reject H0. In statistics there is a famous statement, "the absence of evidence is not the evidence of absence". Nevertheless, this is exactly what we are implying.
My questions are
1. Am I the only one who believes that this method is wrong?
2. Is this method so common that auditors never complain about it? Does anybody had a bad experience with an auditor due to this?
I know that there exists methods, which use the customer risk as input parameter. So my question is not about other methods, but specifically about the usage of the describe method.