not sure if this would have been better to ask in the 60601 section, but does one consider the risks associated with the loss of Essential Performance unacceptable because a key benefit has been lost or because of the potential harm(s) induced by the loss of performance?
I assumed it is because of the loss of benefit because there isn't always a harm when a product fails, particularly for some interventional products. With implants the failure may not cause direct harm when the patient 'simply' reverts to their baseline health status. They would need surgery to remediate the failure (which re-exposes them to risks of surgery). Also while not causing harm, having a non-functioning implant doesn't mean there aren't potential harms in the future. In either case there is reduced or no benefit, thus the risk-benefit is thrown off and therefore it is to be recognized as unacceptable.
Is this the rationale behind defining loss of Essential Performance as an unacceptable risk or is there more to it?
I assumed it is because of the loss of benefit because there isn't always a harm when a product fails, particularly for some interventional products. With implants the failure may not cause direct harm when the patient 'simply' reverts to their baseline health status. They would need surgery to remediate the failure (which re-exposes them to risks of surgery). Also while not causing harm, having a non-functioning implant doesn't mean there aren't potential harms in the future. In either case there is reduced or no benefit, thus the risk-benefit is thrown off and therefore it is to be recognized as unacceptable.
Is this the rationale behind defining loss of Essential Performance as an unacceptable risk or is there more to it?