What to do with Prior Analysis after instrument was Out Of Calibration (OOC)?

#11
While this is "foolproof" it may be more than necessary. It is best to do a little analysis first. it is quite possible to have an instrument out of calibration and still be sure that all material shipped is conforming. As an example, suppose we have a characteristic of nominal 1.00 +/-.01. It is checked with an instrument with a gage tolerance of .001. When the instrument is checked at calibration, it is found to be at .0015 above nominal, out of calibration. A review of inspection records shows that the results recorded for units checked with the instrument are all in the range 0.995-1.004. If we allow for the inaccuracy of the gage, the range would have been 0.9965-1.0055, well within spec limits. The gage should of course be corrected, and steps taken on the calibration frequency, but as no non-conforming product has shipped, it is NOT necessary to inform the customer.

Geoff Withnell
Thanks Geoff!:agree1::applause:

It's of prime importance to know how much out of specification the equipment is, and then to compare it to the product specification! All of the procedure posted could well be a total waste of time......
 
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B

brahmaiah

#12
While this is "foolproof" it may be more than necessary. It is best to do a little analysis first. it is quite possible to have an instrument out of calibration and still be sure that all material shipped is conforming. As an example, suppose we have a characteristic of nominal 1.00 +/-.01. It is checked with an instrument with a gage tolerance of .001. When the instrument is checked at calibration, it is found to be at .0015 above nominal, out of calibration. A review of inspection records shows that the results recorded for units checked with the instrument are all in the range 0.995-1.004. If we allow for the inaccuracy of the gage, the range would have been 0.9965-1.0055, well within spec limits. The gage should of course be corrected, and steps taken on the calibration frequency, but as no non-conforming product has shipped, it is NOT necessary to inform the customer.

Geoff Withnell
To expect that the whole lot produced is with in half the allowed tolerance (as in the example} is unrealistic..If it is true then it means that the process is achieving '0' PPM or better.
v.j.brahmaiah
 
#13
To expect that the whole lot produced is with in half the allowed tolerance (as in the example} is unrealistic..If it is true then it means that the process is achieving '0' PPM or better.
v.j.brahmaiah
I believe you're missing the point of Geoff's post. Please don't get lost in the technicalities of the precise measurements he used, he's trying to lay out the case where virtually none of the procedure posted is necessary - if one has data and analyzes it...........
 
G

Geoff Withnell

#14
To expect that the whole lot produced is with in half the allowed tolerance (as in the example} is unrealistic..If it is true then it means that the process is achieving '0' PPM or better.
v.j.brahmaiah
Not really germane to the original poster's question, but in a well run manufactuing process, 0 ppm is what we expect. If your process is truly capable and in control, you are not producing defects! BTW, how would you get BETTER than 0 ppm?

Geoff Withnell
 
B

brahmaiah

#15
Not really germane to the original poster's question, but in a well run manufactuing process, 0 ppm is what we expect. If your process is truly capable and in control, you are not producing defects! BTW, how would you get BETTER than 0 ppm?

Geoff Withnell
You are right! Better than '0' PPM is impossible.There was a slip in my expression.
V.J.Brahmaiah:agree:
 
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