To take into account the tool wear during calculating control limits we use a coefficient representing the evolution of the mean of the mean.
Someone can give some comments?
In advance thanks.
Actually, calculating control limits that account for tool wear should be easy, if tool wear is the significant portion of your variation. They should be approximately 75% of the tolerance. Why? Because the true distribution for a process that has all of the special causes removed, and has only tool wear remaining, is the
uniform or rectangular distribution - not the normal distribution. You can tell if your process meets this distribution by performing a capability study. If, for example, you are machining a OD, set the process at the lower control limit [nominal - .75(tolerance/2)]. If - without operator intervention - the process increases to the upper control limit [nominal + .75(tolerance/2)], then adjust back down to the lower control limit. If this continues (until a tool breaks, or surface finish deteriorates - special causes), then you have the
"sawtooth" curve, and it is the uniform distribution. Some normal-centric statisticians like to try to 'normalize' the data with transformations, but that is unnecessary, as well as a useless effort. The sawtooth curve is more meaningful as is to an operator - they understand tool wear. The control limits really never need to be adjusted. Compressing the control limits actually increases
overcontrol - and therefore
increasing variation. The slope of the line is the tool wear rate - which is meaningful information that would be masked by transformation. Notice the mean has no use whatsoever in the sawtooth curve - only the control limits. Don't forget, most of the Western Electric rules - especially the one concerning runs, do not apply - they are for the normal curve.
Since the probability of the uniform distribution is straight forward, 75% of the tolerance gives you well below the probability of +/- 3 std dev of a true normal distribution. You could use a higher percentage of the tolerance, but it is better to play it safe due to hysteresis concerns (you can never land exactly on the control limits). This follows AIAG SPC Chapter III Non-Normal Charts, last bullet point: use control limits based on the native non-normal form. (Also, AIAG PPAP section 2.2.11.5 states that the Cpk calculation are not applicable, since the uniform distribution is non-normal and the calculations are for bilateral normal distributions).
I must add that X-bar-R charts are the worst for true uniform distributions. X-MR would be a little better. Again, the
mean means nothing in the uniform distribution - both for the population or the sample, and there should be virtually no discernable variation between 5 consecutive parts, unless you are shredding up tools. The variation you might see is measurement error, typically because of out-of round or parallelism issues - depending on the process. There is a simple way to deal with that - but that is another lecture.
Sounds as though the approach you are taking is just a little too complicated for the real need of the control. But, you
were thinking!
Bob Doering